Social Studies (Grades 5–12)
Subtest 2 Sample Items
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Question 1
1. A geographer would most likely employ the concept of ecology when studying:
- plant species that have been allowed to grow naturally.
- genetic variability within a plant or animal species.
- environmental factors that limit the population growth of a species.
- ways in which plant species manufacture nutrients.
Answer to question 1
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0013) As the scientific study
of how living organisms relate to each other and their physical surroundings, the concept of ecology
provides insights that would be particularly helpful to a geographer who is studying environmental factors
that affect the extent to which the population of a given species can expand.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0013) As the scientific study of how living organisms
relate to each other and their physical surroundings, the concept of ecology provides insights that
would be particularly helpful to a geographer who is studying environmental factors that affect the
extent to which the population of a given species can expand.
Question 2
2.
The equator is indicated on a horizontal line, positioned at 0 degrees in the lower half of the map.
The horizontal lines are labelled from top to bottom, 80 degress, 60 degrees, 30 degrees, 0 degrees,
and 30 degrees. The distances between degree marks increase as the move up away from the equator line
at 0 degrees. The vertical lines are labelled from left to right 120 degrees, 60 degrees, 0 degrees
in the center, 60 degrees, 120 degrees, and 180 degrees. The landmasses are contoured and align to the
four edges of the map.
The map projection above is most useful for:
- showing the accurate shape of major landmasses.
- calculating true distance in all directions.
- illustrating the accurate size of major landmasses.
- determining exact distance between two places.
Answer to question 2
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0013) All map projections—which
represent the surface of a sphere on a two-dimensional plane—must distort to some degree the shape
and/or size of Earth's surface. In a Mercator projection, as pictured here, the shapes of landmasses
are close to their actual shapes, but the sizes of landmasses are not accurate. This distortion is smallest
near the equator and greatest in regions near the poles, such as Greenland, which appears much larger
on a Mercator projection than its true size.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0013) All map projections—which represent
the surface of a sphere on a two-dimensional plane—must distort to some degree the shape and/or
size of Earth's surface. In a Mercator projection, as pictured here, the shapes of landmasses are close
to their actual shapes, but the sizes of landmasses are not accurate. This distortion is smallest near
the equator and greatest in regions near the poles, such as Greenland, which appears much larger on
a Mercator projection than its true size.
Question 3
3. A diagram showing the spread of a contagious disease through a population best exemplifies which
of the following essential geographic elements?
- environment and society
- physical systems
- the world in spatial terms
- places and regions
Answer to question 3
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0013) One way in which geographers
employ the essential element of the world in spatial terms is by studying the movement of products,
ideas, and other phenomena. A diagram showing the spread of a contagious disease through a population
would therefore be a good example of this essential geographic element.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0013) One way in which geographers employ the essential
element of the world in spatial terms is by studying the movement of products, ideas, and other phenomena.
A diagram showing the spread of a contagious disease through a population would therefore be a good
example of this essential geographic element.
Question 4
4. A researcher would be most likely to consult a gazetteer for which of the following types of geographic
information?
- characteristics of named places
- coordinates for physical features
- economic data for population centers
- regions affected by environmental changes
Answer to question 4
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0013) A gazetteer is a resource
that provides geographic information listed in alphabetical order by place name. A researcher could
locate basic information, including absolute location and area for named places such as cities, boroughs,
or districts by consulting a print or digital gazetteer.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0013) A gazetteer is a resource that provides geographic
information listed in alphabetical order by place name. A researcher could locate basic information,
including absolute location and area for named places such as cities, boroughs, or districts by consulting
a print or digital gazetteer.
Question 5
5.
Three bodies of water are numbered. Number 1 is an inland body of water between Europe and Asia. Number
2 is between India and the Saudi peninsula. Number 3 is between southeastern Asia and the many islands
north of Australia.
The numbers on the map above correspond with the locations of which of the following bodies of water?
- 1. Aral Sea
2. Bay of Bengal
3. Philippine Sea
- 1. Black Sea
2. Persian Gulf
3. Yellow Sea
- 1. Lake Balkhash
2. Red Sea
3. Sea of Japan
- 1. Caspian Sea
2. Arabian Sea
3. South China Sea
Answer to question 5
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0014) The three bodies of
water identified by numbers on the map are (1) the Caspian Sea, a large enclosed body of water surrounded
by northern Iran, southern Russia, western Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan, and eastern Azerbaijan; (2)
the Arabian Sea, a region of the Indian Ocean bounded by India to the east and the Arabian Peninsula
to the west; and (3) the South China Sea, a part of the Pacific Ocean that covers an area stretching
from the Singapore and Malacca Straits north to the Taiwan Strait.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0014) The three bodies of water identified by numbers
on the map are (1) the Caspian Sea, a large enclosed body of water surrounded by northern Iran, southern
Russia, western Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan, and eastern Azerbaijan; (2) the Arabian Sea, a region of
the Indian Ocean bounded by India to the east and the Arabian Peninsula to the west; and (3) the South
China Sea, a part of the Pacific Ocean that covers an area stretching from the Singapore and Malacca
Straits north to the Taiwan Strait.
Question 6
6. The island republic of Singapore best illustrates the effect of:
- topography on population distribution.
- climate on work patterns.
- mineral resources on industrialization.
- location on commercial development.
Answer to question 6
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0014) Singapore's strategic
location at a major crossroads of regional trade has strongly influenced the city-state's development
as an important international commercial center and one of the world's busiest ports.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0014) Singapore's strategic location at a major
crossroads of regional trade has strongly influenced the city-state's development as an important international
commercial center and one of the world's busiest ports.
Question 7
7. The deposition of marine sediment played a major role in the formation of which of the following
landforms?
- the isthmus of Panama
- the Great Plains
- the Appalachian Mountains
- the Hawaiian Islands
Answer to question 7
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0014) During the Cretaceous
Period (145 to 65 million years ago), a shallow inland body of water called the Western Interior Seaway
covered much of the region that is now the Great Plains. As the seaway receded, it left behind thick
deposits of marine sediment that served as the physical foundation for the formation of the Great Plains.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0014) During the Cretaceous Period (145 to 65 million
years ago), a shallow inland body of water called the Western Interior Seaway covered much of the region
that is now the Great Plains. As the seaway receded, it left behind thick deposits of marine sediment
that served as the physical foundation for the formation of the Great Plains.
Question 8
8. Which of the following environmental conditions would be most likely to disrupt systems that provide
human communities with drinking water from aquifers?
- wildfires that destroy forest cover in hilly terrain
- flooding in regions where mudslides are common
- rising sea levels in low-lying coastal regions
- extreme cold that freezes the ground for long periods
Answer to question 8
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0014) Coastal aquifer systems
are vulnerable to rising sea levels, particularly where the shoreline slope is flat or gradual. As the
sea level rises, seawater intrusion into the aquifer increases, ultimately depleting the supply of fresh
water for coastal communities.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0014) Coastal aquifer systems are vulnerable to
rising sea levels, particularly where the shoreline slope is flat or gradual. As the sea level rises,
seawater intrusion into the aquifer increases, ultimately depleting the supply of fresh water for coastal
communities.
Question 9
9. Which of the following scientific theories can best be used to show how adaptations of major breakthroughs
in scientific research have changed perceptions of social relations in human societies?
- Sir Charles Lyell's geological investigations
- Albert Einstein's theory of relativity
- Sir Humphry Davy's studies in electromagnetism
- Charles Darwin's principle of natural selection
Answer to question 9
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0015) During the late nineteenth
century, social scientists attempted to apply Darwin's theory of natural selection to ethnic, racial,
and class distinctions of the time, typically in support of political and economic theories that justified
the existing power structure and identified the poor and members of minority groups as inferior. The
emergence of such theories, together described as "Social Darwinism," would provide a clear illustration
of the processes by which scientific breakthroughs can change perceptions of social relations and structures.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0015) During the late nineteenth century, social
scientists attempted to apply Darwin's theory of natural selection to ethnic, racial, and class distinctions
of the time, typically in support of political and economic theories that justified the existing power
structure and identified the poor and members of minority groups as inferior. The emergence of such
theories, together described as "Social Darwinism," would provide a clear illustration of the processes
by which scientific breakthroughs can change perceptions of social relations and structures.
Question 10
10. Australia, China, and Algeria all contain large areas with a low population density because these
countries share which of the following physical characteristics?
- lack of natural resources
- extensive desert regions
- poor transportation infrastructures
- widespread rain forests
Answer to question 10
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0015) Central Australia,
large expanses of northwestern China, and most of Algeria south of the coastal plain and Atlas Mountains
are covered with deserts that cannot sustain more than very limited human populations.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0015) Central Australia, large expanses of northwestern
China, and most of Algeria south of the coastal plain and Atlas Mountains are covered with deserts that
cannot sustain more than very limited human populations.
Question 11
11. Which of the following developments since 1990 has most accelerated the process of world cultures
becoming more alike?
- the spread of democratic ideas and institutions
- advances in communications technology
- the expansion of global trade
- advances in transportation technology
Answer to question 11
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0015) Late twentieth-century
advances in communications technology substantially increased interaction between the world's cultures,
bringing peoples with different ways of life into closer contact with each other and accelerating cultural
convergences—the process of people becoming more alike as they exchange and share products, beliefs,
and ideas.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0015) Late twentieth-century advances in communications
technology substantially increased interaction between the world's cultures, bringing peoples with different
ways of life into closer contact with each other and accelerating cultural convergences—the process
of people becoming more alike as they exchange and share products, beliefs, and ideas.
Question 12
12. Early human settlements typically consisted of similar houses spread out in a small area and surrounded
by agricultural fields. Cities that emerged in regions such as China, the Middle East, and the Valley
of Mexico generally featured large temples and palaces at the core surrounded by smaller habitations,
reflecting which of the following social changes?
- The inhabitants of early cities were increasing stratified according to class.
- Cities became more heterogeneous as they absorbed people from other cultures.
- Warfare between population centers became more common and destructive.
- Agriculture became less important as small-scale specialized industries developed.
Answer to question 12
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0015) Many of the early urban
centers have a core consisting of elaborate temples, palaces, plazas, and buildings housing "offices"
where bureaucrats worked and lived. The central core was often surrounded by neighborhoods where buildings
were larger and more lavish than those in the rest of the city; further out, buildings that housed the
general population were smaller and less well constructed. These features can be seen as evidence of
the emergence of a class structure with priests and other elites at the top and ordinary workers at
the bottom of the society.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0015) Many of the early urban centers have a core
consisting of elaborate temples, palaces, plazas, and buildings housing "offices" where bureaucrats
worked and lived. The central core was often surrounded by neighborhoods where buildings were larger
and more lavish than those in the rest of the city; further out, buildings that housed the general population
were smaller and less well constructed. These features can be seen as evidence of the emergence of a
class structure with priests and other elites at the top and ordinary workers at the bottom of the society.
Question 13
13. Social contract theory describes a process by which:
- families band together to establish cooperative institutions designed to promote the development of
material resources.
- leaders of dominant groups form pacts with the leaders of less powerful groups to protect each other's
interests.
- heads of clans resolve their differences and decide upon an equitable distribution of group resources.
- individuals give up unlimited freedom in exchange for agreement on the rights and responsibilities
of everyone in the community.
Answer to question 13
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0016) According to social
contract theory, people "contract," or agree among themselves, to form organized societies in order
to make life more secure and to achieve aims that can more easily be attained collectively. In doing
so, they give up the unlimited freedom they had enjoyed when living in a state of nature to create a
society better able to protect and provide for the well-being of all of its members.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0016) According to social contract theory, people
"contract," or agree among themselves, to form organized societies in order to make life more secure
and to achieve aims that can more easily be attained collectively. In doing so, they give up the unlimited
freedom they had enjoyed when living in a state of nature to create a society better able to protect
and provide for the well-being of all of its members.
Question 14
14. A major advantage of representative democracies over direct democracies is that, in general, representative
democracies tend to be:
- more accountable.
- less prone to conflicts of interest.
- more efficient.
- less prone to corruption.
Answer to question 14
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0016) Representative democracies
tend to be more efficient than direct democracies because it is easier for a select group of representatives
to make decisions about various issues than to decide all public policy questions by referendum or to
have each issue or proposal decided by the entire electorate of a community.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0016) Representative democracies tend to be more
efficient than direct democracies because it is easier for a select group of representatives to make
decisions about various issues than to decide all public policy questions by referendum or to have each
issue or proposal decided by the entire electorate of a community.
Question 15
15. The concept that people have a right to rebel against government authority that has lost legitimacy
is associated primarily with the work of which of the following political thinkers?
- Thomas Hobbes
- John Locke
- Alexis de Tocqueville
- Karl Marx
Answer to question 15
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0016) In Two Treatises
of Government (1689), John Locke posited that government authority derives from the consent of
free people and that the purpose of a legitimate government is to preserve the rights of the people.
Locke argues, accordingly, that the people have the right to revoke the authority and power of a government
that violates the rights of its subjects.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0016) In Two Treatises of Government (1689),
John Locke posited that government authority derives from the consent of free people and that the purpose
of a legitimate government is to preserve the rights of the people. Locke argues, accordingly, that
the people have the right to revoke the authority and power of a government that violates the rights
of its subjects.
Question 16
16. A political science researcher would be most likely to rely primarily on interviews in pursuing
which of the following research tasks?
- comparing exit polling during an election with actual votes cast to determine the reliability of the
polling
- measuring the level of support for a political candidate among the residents of one congressional district
- analyzing the correlation between education level and political affiliation among voters in several
states
- determining the reasons residents of one community support or oppose a proposed local policy
Answer to question 16
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0016) Because they allow
subjects to express their own beliefs, interests, and feelings, interviews provide political science
researchers the best opportunity to understand the political preferences and decisions of individuals.
For this reason, the interview would likely be the primary means for learning why community members
chose to support or oppose a particular policy.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0016) Because they allow subjects to express their
own beliefs, interests, and feelings, interviews provide political science researchers the best opportunity
to understand the political preferences and decisions of individuals. For this reason, the interview
would likely be the primary means for learning why community members chose to support or oppose a particular
policy.
Question 17
17. Which of the following constitutional provisions most directly addresses the tension between majority
rule and minority rights in U.S. society?
- the due process clause of the Fifth Amendment
- the implied powers clause of Article I
- the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment
- the full faith and credit clause of Article IV
Answer to question 17
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0017) The equal protection
clause of the Fourteenth Amendment took effect in 1868 and guaranteed that no state shall deny any person
within its jurisdiction equal protection under the law, directly addressing and strictly limiting the
power of majorities to impose their will when doing so infringes on the rights under law of members
of the minority. The equal protection clause was the basis for the U.S. Supreme Court's finding in
Brown v. Board of Education that segregation in public schools was unconstitutional.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0017) The equal protection clause of the Fourteenth
Amendment took effect in 1868 and guaranteed that no state shall deny any person within its jurisdiction
equal protection under the law, directly addressing and strictly limiting the power of majorities to
impose their will when doing so infringes on the rights under law of members of the minority. The equal
protection clause was the basis for the U.S. Supreme Court's finding in Brown v. Board of
Education that segregation in public schools was unconstitutional.
Question 18
18. Which of the following responses best describes the main purpose of the Kentucky and Virginia Resolutions
of 1798?
- to condemn executive branch usurpation of the powers of Congress
- to expand the range of freedoms protected by the Bill of Rights
- to establish the right of states to judge the legitimacy of national laws
- to place limits on the economic power of the federal government
Answer to question 18
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0017) The Kentucky and Virginia
Resolutions were a response to the Alien and Sedition Acts, which prohibited the publication of books,
pamphlets, or articles criticizing the government. Thomas Jefferson and James Madison, the authors of
the Kentucky and Virginia Resolutions, contended that individual states had the right to determine the
constitutionality of federal laws and could refuse to adopt any laws that they considered unconstitutional.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0017) The Kentucky and Virginia Resolutions were
a response to the Alien and Sedition Acts, which prohibited the publication of books, pamphlets, or
articles criticizing the government. Thomas Jefferson and James Madison, the authors of the Kentucky
and Virginia Resolutions, contended that individual states had the right to determine the constitutionality
of federal laws and could refuse to adopt any laws that they considered unconstitutional.
Question 19
19. Which of the following responses best explains why the principles of checks and balances, judicial
review, and due process of law were incorporated into the U.S. Constitution?
- to ensure equality of opportunity
- to promote national unity
- to limit the power of government
- to encourage free expression
Answer to question 19
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0017) Checks and balances,
judicial review, and due process of law were incorporated into the U.S. Constitution to limit the power
of government. Checks and balances does so by preventing any single branch of government from accumulating
excessive power. Judicial review provides a means of ensuring that the executive and legislative branches
of government do not take actions that go beyond their constitutional powers. Due process of law requires
the government, when administering the law, to act according to clear and established rules.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0017) Checks and balances, judicial review, and
due process of law were incorporated into the U.S. Constitution to limit the power of government. Checks
and balances does so by preventing any single branch of government from accumulating excessive power.
Judicial review provides a means of ensuring that the executive and legislative branches of government
do not take actions that go beyond their constitutional powers. Due process of law requires the government,
when administering the law, to act according to clear and established rules.
Question 20
20. Which of the following responses best describes the significance of the U.S. Supreme Court ruling
in Marbury v. Madison?
- It strengthened the ability of Congress to check executive authority.
- It clarified the meaning of the doctrine of federalism.
- It provided a basis for the exercise of judicial review by the Supreme Court.
- It established the principle of constitutional supremacy.
Answer to question 20
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0017) In Marbury
v. Madison, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that a section of the Judiciary Act of 1789 was at
odds with the U.S. Constitution, thereby establishing a basis for the Court's exercise of judicial review—the
power to determine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0017) In Marbury v. Madison,
the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that a section of the Judiciary Act of 1789 was at odds with the U.S. Constitution,
thereby establishing a basis for the Court's exercise of judicial review—the power to determine
the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions.
Question 21
21. Which of the following best describes a power of the governor of Minnesota?
- nominating judges to serve on the Minnesota Supreme Court
- vetoing specific items in state appropriations bills
- establishing boundaries for Minnesota's congressional districts
- appointing the auditor and attorney general of Minnesota
Answer to question 21
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0018) The governor of Minnesota
has the power to veto bills passed by the Minnesota State Legislature, much as the president of the
United States can veto bills passed by the U.S. Congress. As in most states, but unlike the U.S. president,
the governor can make line-item vetoes, stripping out specific provisions of bills while allowing the
overall bill to be signed into law.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0018) The governor of Minnesota has the power to
veto bills passed by the Minnesota State Legislature, much as the president of the United States can
veto bills passed by the U.S. Congress. As in most states, but unlike the U.S. president, the governor
can make line-item vetoes, stripping out specific provisions of bills while allowing the overall bill
to be signed into law.
Question 22
22. Which of the following responses correctly lists a major function of Congress, the president, and
the Supreme Court in the U.S. system of government?
- Congress: regulating international commerce
President: nominating individuals to serve on federal courts
Supreme Court: determining the constitutionality of executive orders
- Congress: extending diplomatic recognition to other nations
President: admitting new states to the Union
Supreme Court: trying impeachment cases
- Congress: granting pardons and reprieves
President: setting up independent regulatory commissions
Supreme Court: determining punishments for federal crimes
- Congress: enforcing decisions of the federal judiciary
President: setting rules for naturalization
Supreme Court: establishing federal courts
Answer to question 22
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0018) Article I, Section
8 of the U.S. Constitution grants Congress the power to "regulate commerce with foreign nations." Article
II, Section 2 gives the president the power to appoint "judges of the Supreme Court" and other federal
judges. In Marbury v. Madison (1803), the U.S. Supreme Court established the principle
of judicial review, which gives it the power to determine the constitutionality of executive orders
as well as laws passed by Congress.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0018) Article I, Section 8 of the U.S. Constitution
grants Congress the power to "regulate commerce with foreign nations." Article II, Section 2 gives the
president the power to appoint "judges of the Supreme Court" and other federal judges. In Marbury
v. Madison (1803), the U.S. Supreme Court established the principle of judicial review, which
gives it the power to determine the constitutionality of executive orders as well as laws passed by
Congress.
Question 23
23. The principle of separation of powers has influenced U.S. political parties most clearly in party
efforts to:
- organize support for legislative initiatives among local, state, and federal officeholders.
- craft platforms that will appeal to party members in different regions of the country.
- coordinate the actions of elected officials in the executive and legislative branches of government.
- select candidates who can mobilize support from diverse social and economic groups.
Answer to question 23
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0018) Because members of
the same party in the presidency, Senate, and House of Representatives generally share similar political
principles, political parties are often able to overcome the division of responsibilities created by
the separation of powers when they coordinate the actions of these elected officials.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0018) Because members of the same party in the
presidency, Senate, and House of Representatives generally share similar political principles, political
parties are often able to overcome the division of responsibilities created by the separation of powers
when they coordinate the actions of these elected officials.
Question 24
24. In the U.S. legal system, which of the following tasks is the main function of a grand jury?
- determining whether there is sufficient evidence to prosecute individuals suspected of crimes
- assisting prosecutors in conducting public investigations of criminal matters
- conducting investigations of alleged crimes before suspects are identified by law enforcement
- rendering judgments in criminal court cases involving serious felonies
Answer to question 24
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0018) In the U.S. legal system,
the main function of a grand jury is to determine if the government should indict, or bring charges
against, individuals suspected of crimes. In closed proceedings, the grand jury reviews evidence presented
by prosecutors and decides whether the evidence is sufficient to return an indictment.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0018) In the U.S. legal system, the main function
of a grand jury is to determine if the government should indict, or bring charges against, individuals
suspected of crimes. In closed proceedings, the grand jury reviews evidence presented by prosecutors
and decides whether the evidence is sufficient to return an indictment.
Question 25
25. A major difference between command economies and free market economies is that market systems are
generally better able to:
- maintain a positive balance of trade.
- take advantage of economies of scale.
- allocate resources efficiently.
- reduce joblessness during recessions.
Answer to question 25
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0019) In a market economy,
resources are allocated through the interaction of free and self-directed market forces. What to produce
is determined by consumer choices, how to produce goods and services is determined by producers, how
much to produce is determined by aggregate demand, and who purchases goods is determined by the purchasing
power of consumers. These interactions yield a more efficient allocation of resources than in a command
economy, where resources are allocated by those who control the means of production rather than by the
demand for goods and services.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0019) In a market economy, resources are allocated
through the interaction of free and self-directed market forces. What to produce is determined by consumer
choices, how to produce goods and services is determined by producers, how much to produce is determined
by aggregate demand, and who purchases goods is determined by the purchasing power of consumers. These
interactions yield a more efficient allocation of resources than in a command economy, where resources
are allocated by those who control the means of production rather than by the demand for goods and services.
Question 26
26. Market economies are more likely than command economies to:
- deal effectively with the consequences of unemployment.
- avoid major inequities in the distribution of income.
- take advantage of economies of scale and scope.
- base decisions about what to produce on consumer choices.
Answer to question 26
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0019) Unlike command economies,
in which state authorities make most or all decisions about what to produce, in market systems these
decisions are the result of millions of economic choices made by individual buyers and sellers in the
marketplace. In such an economic system, producers that ignore consumer preferences or demands are unlikely
to remain in business.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0019) Unlike command economies, in which state
authorities make most or all decisions about what to produce, in market systems these decisions are
the result of millions of economic choices made by individual buyers and sellers in the marketplace.
In such an economic system, producers that ignore consumer preferences or demands are unlikely to remain
in business.
Question 27
27. Which of the following developments would most likely cause a decrease in the demand for canned
soda?
- a decrease in the price of sweetened fruit drinks
- a decrease in the price of sugar
- a decrease in the price of artificial sweeteners
- a decrease in the price of aluminum
Answer to question 27
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0019) For many consumers,
sweetened fruit drinks are a substitute good that can be used in place of canned soda. Should the price
of sweetened fruit drinks decline, consumers are likely to purchase more of these drinks, thereby decreasing
the demand for canned soda.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0019) For many consumers, sweetened fruit drinks
are a substitute good that can be used in place of canned soda. Should the price of sweetened fruit
drinks decline, consumers are likely to purchase more of these drinks, thereby decreasing the demand
for canned soda.
Question 28
28. The equilibrium price of a product is the price at which:
- firms can make a profit from producing the product.
- excess demand forces firms to increase production of the product.
- consumers are willing to purchase the product.
- quantity demanded matches quantity supplied for the product.
Answer to question 28
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0019) The equilibrium price
is indicated by the intersection of the supply and demand curves for a product. A market is said to
be in a state of equilibrium when quantity demanded equals quantity supplied for the product.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0019) The equilibrium price is indicated by the
intersection of the supply and demand curves for a product. A market is said to be in a state of equilibrium
when quantity demanded equals quantity supplied for the product.
Question 29
29. A fiscal stimulus package designed to close a recessionary gap is introduced just before private
sector spending recovers. This action would most likely result in:
- increased unemployment.
- rising inflation.
- downward pressure on wages.
- rising trade surpluses.
Answer to question 29
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0020) The spending increases
and tax cuts typically included in a fiscal stimulus package, when combined with increased private sector
spending, would likely result in what economists call demand-pull inflation: price increases caused
by rising aggregate demand resulting from government and business competing for scarce resources.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0020) The spending increases and tax cuts typically
included in a fiscal stimulus package, when combined with increased private sector spending, would likely
result in what economists call demand-pull inflation: price increases caused by rising aggregate demand
resulting from government and business competing for scarce resources.
Question 30
30. Which of the following federal policy initiatives would most likely increase the price of goods
that U.S. consumers purchase from both domestic and foreign suppliers?
- eliminating foreign assistance programs
- establishing import quotas
- lowering the exchange rate of the dollar versus foreign currencies
- restricting U.S. investment in other countries
Answer to question 30
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0020) The establishment of
import quotas limits the quantity of a product that can be imported, thereby reducing supply and diminishing
competition in that market, which in turn will encourage domestic firms that supply the same product
to raise their prices.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0020) The establishment of import quotas limits
the quantity of a product that can be imported, thereby reducing supply and diminishing competition
in that market, which in turn will encourage domestic firms that supply the same product to raise their
prices.
Question 31
31. A period of deflation would be most likely to result in which of the following developments?
- Export-oriented manufacturers reduce hiring in response to declining sales in overseas markets.
- Workers respond to declines in the real value of their incomes by exiting the labor market.
- Consumers slow the rate of economic growth by postponing purchases and reducing borrowing.
- Commercial banks reduce lending and increase their holdings of reserves in the central bank.
Answer to question 31
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0020) Deflation is a sustained
decrease in the general price level. During a period of deflation, the value of money increases, and
making future payments of fixed numbers of dollars, as in the case of paying back a loan, becomes burdensome.
If consumers expect that prices will continue to fall, and the burden of making debt payments will continue
to rise, they are likely to defer purchases and refrain from borrowing, slowing aggregate demand, output,
and employment.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0020) Deflation is a sustained decrease in the
general price level. During a period of deflation, the value of money increases, and making future payments
of fixed numbers of dollars, as in the case of paying back a loan, becomes burdensome. If consumers
expect that prices will continue to fall, and the burden of making debt payments will continue to rise,
they are likely to defer purchases and refrain from borrowing, slowing aggregate demand, output, and
employment.
Question 32
32. Typically, economists would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements regarding
the impact of trade policies?
- Protectionist policies preserve employment in the short run and slow economic growth in the long run.
- Free trade lowers the price of imported goods and raises the price of exported goods.
- Protectionist policies encourage innovation by domestic producers and discourage consumer spending.
- Free trade decreases inequality in rich countries and increases inequality in poor countries.
Answer to question 32
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0020) Protectionist trade
policies such as higher import tariffs are designed to raise the price and/or reduce the availability
of imported goods that compete with domestically produced items. Such policies generally can succeed
in preserving or increasing output and employment in those domestic industries. Industries that are
shielded from foreign competition have more market power and less incentive to innovate, which can lead
to inefficiencies and slower economic growth.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0020) Protectionist trade policies such as higher
import tariffs are designed to raise the price and/or reduce the availability of imported goods that
compete with domestically produced items. Such policies generally can succeed in preserving or increasing
output and employment in those domestic industries. Industries that are shielded from foreign competition
have more market power and less incentive to innovate, which can lead to inefficiencies and slower economic
growth.
Question 33
33. Defense mechanisms such as projection, rationalization, and displacement can best be described as:
- irrational strategies used to reduce personal anxiety.
- practical means of identifying threats to individual safety.
- logical devices used to resolve personal problems.
- fear-induced means of accepting unwelcome changes.
Answer to question 33
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0021) Projection is the attribution
of one's own undesirable qualities to other people or society in general. Rationalization is the formulation
of logical reasons to justify unacceptable behavior. Displacement is the substitution of less threatening
objects for the original cause of an impulse. All of these mechanisms—while useful and even necessary
in some circumstances to reduce anxiety and bolster self-esteem—are unconscious or irrational
techniques that involve some degree of self-deception.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0021) Projection is the attribution of one's own
undesirable qualities to other people or society in general. Rationalization is the formulation of logical
reasons to justify unacceptable behavior. Displacement is the substitution of less threatening objects
for the original cause of an impulse. All of these mechanisms—while useful and even necessary
in some circumstances to reduce anxiety and bolster self-esteem—are unconscious or irrational
techniques that involve some degree of self-deception.
Question 34
34. During adolescence, which of the following developments typically has the greatest influence on
the formation of an individual's identity?
- assumption of heightened levels of responsibility and the establishment of life goals
- separation from parents and the growing importance of attachment to peer groups
- emergence of moral reasoning based on external rules and avoiding punishment
- decline in egocentric thinking as others' perceptions are increasingly recognized
Answer to question 34
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0021) During adolescence,
individuals are transitioning from being children who are highly reliant on adult caregivers to being
young adults with considerably greater autonomy in managing their daily lives. During this transitional
period, the formation of personal identity is often intertwined with the adolescent's decreasing attachment
to parents and increasing attachment to peers.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0021) During adolescence, individuals are transitioning
from being children who are highly reliant on adult caregivers to being young adults with considerably
greater autonomy in managing their daily lives. During this transitional period, the formation of personal
identity is often intertwined with the adolescent's decreasing attachment to parents and increasing
attachment to peers.
Question 35
35. In contemporary workplaces, the ability of individuals to work independently and cooperatively to
accomplish goals is typically most influenced by the:
- commitment of employees to the organization.
- strength of organizational leadership.
- degree to which employee autonomy is encouraged.
- availability of flexible working hours.
Answer to question 35
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0021) In a competitive and
dynamic business environment, the efficiency of the workplace frequently depends on the autonomy of
employees to make decisions, assess the quality of their own performance, and modify their work strategies
when necessary. Employees who are given significant autonomy are better able to accomplish goals both
independently and in collaboration with others.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0021) In a competitive and dynamic business environment,
the efficiency of the workplace frequently depends on the autonomy of employees to make decisions, assess
the quality of their own performance, and modify their work strategies when necessary. Employees who
are given significant autonomy are better able to accomplish goals both independently and in collaboration
with others.
Question 36
36. During the Middle Ages, which of the following cultural agents exerted the greatest homogenizing
influence on western European society?
- religious beliefs
- trade and commerce
- education
- political ideology
Answer to question 36
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0021) The most stable institution
in medieval Europe, the Catholic Church functioned as a major force for unity in a politically fragmented
society. Nearly everyone was a church member, and with a few notable exceptions, those people who objected
to church doctrine tended to keep their beliefs to themselves.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0021) The most stable institution in medieval Europe,
the Catholic Church functioned as a major force for unity in a politically fragmented society. Nearly
everyone was a church member, and with a few notable exceptions, those people who objected to church
doctrine tended to keep their beliefs to themselves.
Question 37
37. Which of the following cultural behaviors are most likely to persist in a complex society?
- behaviors that enhance the power of political and economic leaders in the society
- behaviors that promote society's diversification in response to environmental change
- behaviors that encourage scientific inquiry and technological innovation in the society
- behaviors that are adopted by the society's religious and civic leaders
Answer to question 37
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0022) In complex societies,
especially industrial societies, the means of production tend to become centralized in the hands of
a small number of people as economies of scale work in favor of larger enterprises and against small,
independent producers. Political, economic, and social elites in positions of power over the means of
production are typically able to define and support cultural behaviors, values, and norms that justify
and reinforce their authority.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0022) In complex societies, especially industrial
societies, the means of production tend to become centralized in the hands of a small number of people
as economies of scale work in favor of larger enterprises and against small, independent producers.
Political, economic, and social elites in positions of power over the means of production are typically
able to define and support cultural behaviors, values, and norms that justify and reinforce their authority.
Question 38
38. Which of the following best explains why studying only one or two aspects of a culture often results
in an inadequate and misleading understanding of that culture?
- Cultures are internally integrated.
- Cultures change through contact with other cultures.
- Cultural learning begins at birth.
- Culture and nature are often difficult to separate.
Answer to question 38
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0022) The customary beliefs,
social forms, material traits, and characteristic features of everyday life that together constitute
a particular culture work in tandem to create patterns of thought and action that structures an individual's
world. As a result, a word or social practice that has a particular meaning or use in one society might
have an entirely different meaning or use in another. Thus, any study that focused on only a few aspects
of a given culture would likely overlook or misinterpret important features of that culture.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0022) The customary beliefs, social forms, material
traits, and characteristic features of everyday life that together constitute a particular culture work
in tandem to create patterns of thought and action that structures an individual's world. As a result,
a word or social practice that has a particular meaning or use in one society might have an entirely
different meaning or use in another. Thus, any study that focused on only a few aspects of a given culture
would likely overlook or misinterpret important features of that culture.
Question 39
39.
There are five Roman numerals on the map, marking separate societies, one at the end of each arm of
the X and one in the center. A key indicates the markings for rain forest, mountains, grassland, desert,
and roads. Roads of approximately equal length connect society 4, in the center of the X, to societies
2, 3, and 5. No road goes to society 1. The environment of society 1 is mountains. The environment of
society 2 is rain forest. The environment of society 3 is grassland. The environment of society 4 is
grassland. The environment of society 5 is desert.
Cross-cultural understanding is likely greatest between which of the following two societies shown on
the map above?
- Society I and Society V
- Society II and Society III
- Society III and Society IV
- Society IV and Society V
Answer to question 39
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0022) Cross-cultural understanding
would likely be greatest between societies III and IV because the two societies share a similar physical
environment, which would most likely lead to similar forms of economic activity, similar needs for clothing
and shelter, similar agricultural options, and similar diets. Add to this an established transportation
link, which would facilitate personal and commercial contact, and there is likely to be a strong degree
of cross-cultural understanding between the two societies.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0022) Cross-cultural understanding would likely
be greatest between societies III and IV because the two societies share a similar physical environment,
which would most likely lead to similar forms of economic activity, similar needs for clothing and shelter,
similar agricultural options, and similar diets. Add to this an established transportation link, which
would facilitate personal and commercial contact, and there is likely to be a strong degree of cross-cultural
understanding between the two societies.
Question 40
40. Which of the following is generally the main determinant of social status and prestige in Western
industrial societies?
- the occupational position a person holds
- the family to which a person belongs
- the amount of education a person has acquired
- the religious institution to which a person belongs
Answer to question 40
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0022) In traditional agricultural
societies with limited social mobility, social status is primarily determined by inherited wealth and
the social position occupied by one's family. In modern industrial societies, in which wide access to
education creates opportunities for social mobility and individual achievement and wealth is distributed
more evenly across society, one's occupational role—lawyer, factory worker, businessperson, teacher—becomes
a more important determinant of social status.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0022) In traditional agricultural societies with
limited social mobility, social status is primarily determined by inherited wealth and the social position
occupied by one's family. In modern industrial societies, in which wide access to education creates
opportunities for social mobility and individual achievement and wealth is distributed more evenly across
society, one's occupational role—lawyer, factory worker, businessperson, teacher—becomes
a more important determinant of social status.