Health (Grades 5–12)
Subtest 1 Sample Items
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Question 1
1. According to national statistics, the leading causes of car accidents involving teenage drivers most often include:
- driving when fatigued and becoming drowsy and falling asleep at the wheel.
- hazardous driving conditions due to inclement weather, heavy traffic, damaged road surfaces, and poorly lit stretches of road.
- mechanical failures in vehicles due to the age of vehicles and/or lack of regular preventive maintenance.
- inexperience in recognizing dangerous situations and risky behaviors such as speeding, tailgating, and cell phone use.
Answer to question 1
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0001) According to statistics compiled by agencies such as the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), risk-taking behaviors including failure to use restraints, alcohol use, and speeding were prevalent in fatal young driver crashes. Young novice drivers tend to underestimate the crash risk in hazardous situations and overestimate their ability to avoid the threats they do identify. In addition, teenage drivers are more likely than older drivers to speed, allow shorter headways (the distance from the front of one vehicle to the front of the next), run red lights, violate traffic signs and signals, make illegal turns, pass dangerously, talk or text using cell phones, and fail to yield to pedestrians. Of all age and gender groups of drivers, young males aged 15 to 20 are most likely to be speeding at the time of a fatal crash.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0001) According to statistics compiled by agencies such as the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), risk-taking behaviors including failure to use restraints, alcohol use, and speeding were prevalent in fatal young driver crashes. Young novice drivers tend to underestimate the crash risk in hazardous situations and overestimate their ability to avoid the threats they do identify. In addition, teenage drivers are more likely than older drivers to speed, allow shorter headways (the distance from the front of one vehicle to the front of the next), run red lights, violate traffic signs and signals, make illegal turns, pass dangerously, talk or text using cell phones, and fail to yield to pedestrians. Of all age and gender groups of drivers, young males aged 15 to 20 are most likely to be speeding at the time of a fatal crash.
Question 2
2. In an outdoor freeze tag activity, the teacher chooses two students to be "taggers," who each have a soft foam ball to throw at students, and two students to be "doctors," who can unfreeze students. On the teacher's signal, students run around and try to avoid being tagged by a thrown ball. When students are tagged, they remain in that spot until a doctor taps them on the shoulder, thereby unfreezing them and sending them back into motion. Doctors cannot be tagged. Every few minutes, the teacher signals a freeze for all students and rotates different students into tagger and doctor roles. Which of the following strategies would best increase the safety of this game?
- rotating new students into tagger and doctor roles every 30 seconds
- having students travel in pairs and using vinyl balls that bounce off players to allow for easier retrieval
- requiring doctors to approach frozen players from behind to unfreeze them
- marking boundaries or borders and requiring taggers to tag students between their shoulders and knees
Answer to question 2
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0001) Establishing boundaries or borders for the game will help prevent students from running too far away from the core activity and will allow more effective line-of-sight supervision by the teacher and other adults. By marking or indicating boundaries, the teacher can also ensure that students remain in a playing area that is free of hazards such as holes or debris. Requiring taggers to tag players between their knees and shoulders will help avoid incidents in which children trip over a thrown ball or get hit in the face or head with a thrown ball. This requirement would also encourage student taggers to try to move close to their targets and take care in aiming the ball, thus avoiding wild throws and ensuring a more controlled activity.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0001) Establishing boundaries or borders for the game will help prevent students from running too far away from the core activity and will allow more effective line-of-sight supervision by the teacher and other adults. By marking or indicating boundaries, the teacher can also ensure that students remain in a playing area that is free of hazards such as holes or debris. Requiring taggers to tag players between their knees and shoulders will help avoid incidents in which children trip over a thrown ball or get hit in the face or head with a thrown ball. This requirement would also encourage student taggers to try to move close to their targets and take care in aiming the ball, thus avoiding wild throws and ensuring a more controlled activity.
Question 3
3. Which of the following procedures is the most appropriate first step for treating a wrist sprain due to a stretched ligament?
- applying an ice pack to the injured area and compressing it with an elastic bandage to help reduce swelling
- massaging and rotating the wrist gently at regular intervals so that range of motion is not compromised
- wrapping the injured area loosely in a heating pad to alleviate pain and retain elasticity in the ligament
- holding the wrist below the level of the heart to allow blood to flow more readily to the injured area
Answer to question 3
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0001) Wrist sprains are most often caused by a fall onto an outstretched hand. This may happen during everyday activities but frequently occurs during sports and outdoor recreation. When a wrist sprain injury occurs, the ligaments of the wrist are stretched beyond their normal limits. Mild wrist sprains can usually be treated at home with the RICE protocol: resting the joint for at least 48 hours, icing the injury to reduce swelling, compressing the swelling with an elastic bandage, and elevating the injury above the level of the heart. Ice should not be applied directly to the skin; an ice pack or a bag of ice wrapped in a towel can be used for about 20 minutes at a time.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0001) Wrist sprains are most often caused by a fall onto an outstretched hand. This may happen during everyday activities but frequently occurs during sports and outdoor recreation. When a wrist sprain injury occurs, the ligaments of the wrist are stretched beyond their normal limits. Mild wrist sprains can usually be treated at home with the RICE protocol: resting the joint for at least 48 hours, icing the injury to reduce swelling, compressing the swelling with an elastic bandage, and elevating the injury above the level of the heart. Ice should not be applied directly to the skin; an ice pack or a bag of ice wrapped in a towel can be used for about 20 minutes at a time.
Question 4
4. According to standard first aid guidelines, which of the following procedures should be used to help a conscious child who is choking and cannot cough or speak?
- leaning the child forward over the back of a chair and gently applying and then releasing pressure until the object is dislodged
- performing cycles of 2 rescue breaths and 15 chest compressions until the object is dislodged and normal breathing returns
- administering a series of abdominal thrusts or a combination of back blows and abdominal thrusts until the object is dislodged
- reaching around the child and performing chest thrusts and finger sweeps of the mouth until the object is located or expelled
Answer to question 4
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0001) The American Red Cross recommends a "five-and-five" approach—five back blows and five abdominal thrusts—to aid a conscious child who is choking. This procedure involves leaning the child who is choking forward at the waist and administering five back blows between the child's shoulder blades with the heel of one hand. Next, the rescuer places a fist with the thumb side against the middle of the child's abdomen, just above the navel, covers the fist with the other hand, and delivers five quick, upward thrusts (also known as the Heimlich maneuver). The five-and-five approach can be used until the object is expelled or the child can cough forcefully or breathe. The American Heart Association does not teach the back blow technique, only the abdominal thrust procedures. Both approaches are considered acceptable first aid for children.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0001) The American Red Cross recommends a "five-and-five" approach—five back blows and five abdominal thrusts—to aid a conscious child who is choking. This procedure involves leaning the child who is choking forward at the waist and administering five back blows between the child's shoulder blades with the heel of one hand. Next, the rescuer places a fist with the thumb side against the middle of the child's abdomen, just above the navel, covers the fist with the other hand, and delivers five quick, upward thrusts (also known as the Heimlich maneuver). The five-and-five approach can be used until the object is expelled or the child can cough forcefully or breathe. The American Heart Association does not teach the back blow technique, only the abdominal thrust procedures. Both approaches are considered acceptable first aid for children.
Question 5
5. According to research, which of the following influences correlates most highly with an adolescent's choice to begin smoking?
- exposure to point-of-purchase cigarette advertising
- viewing films that depict smoking favorably
- reading magazines that contain cigarette advertising
- having one or more parents/guardians who smoke
Answer to question 5
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0002) Many research studies have demonstrated the predictive risk factor of parent/guardian smoking on children's smoking. Use of tobacco by parents, guardians, and other significant adults in the home environment, and their approval of tobacco use, leads to adolescent perceptions that tobacco use is acceptable or "normal" behavior. This outcome highlights the essential role of family in reducing the risk of childhood smoking and smoking escalation among adolescents who initiate smoking. In families that practice positive family management strategies aimed at preventing smoking, the incidence of smoking and smoking escalation in children and adolescents is significantly reduced.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0002) Many research studies have demonstrated the predictive risk factor of parent/guardian smoking on children's smoking. Use of tobacco by parents, guardians, and other significant adults in the home environment, and their approval of tobacco use, leads to adolescent perceptions that tobacco use is acceptable or "normal" behavior. This outcome highlights the essential role of family in reducing the risk of childhood smoking and smoking escalation among adolescents who initiate smoking. In families that practice positive family management strategies aimed at preventing smoking, the incidence of smoking and smoking escalation in children and adolescents is significantly reduced.
Question 6
6. Which of the following "club drugs" is a sedative whose effects include impaired judgment and motor skills, feelings of intoxication, loss of inhibitions, amnesia, and, if combined with alcohol or other depressants, loss of muscular control and unconsciousness?
- methamphetamine
- MDMA (Ecstasy)
- DMT (dimethyltryptamine)
- flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)
Answer to question 6
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0002) Flunitrazepam, marketed as Rohypnol, began being used in the early 1990s at nightclubs, raves, and dance parties as a way to enhance social intimacy and sensory stimulation. It is a benzodiazepine (chemically similar to sedative-hypnotic drugs) that is not approved for medical use in the United States. The effects of flunitrazepam include muscle relaxation, impaired psychomotor performance, disinhibition, aggressive behavior, decreased blood pressure, dizziness, and drowsiness. Since 1999, the manufacturer of Rohypnol has added blue dye to the tablets so the drug is visible when dissolved in drinks, but the clear-dissolving tablets are still available on the black market. Known as the "date rape" drug, flunitrazepam has been used in sexual assaults due to its tasteless and odorless qualities and its ability to sedate and incapacitate unsuspecting victims. The drug can produce a type of amnesia in which individuals do not remember events they experienced while under its influence. The use of flunitrazepam in conjunction with alcohol or other depressants has resulted in several deaths.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0002) Flunitrazepam, marketed as Rohypnol, began being used in the early 1990s at nightclubs, raves, and dance parties as a way to enhance social intimacy and sensory stimulation. It is a benzodiazepine (chemically similar to sedative-hypnotic drugs) that is not approved for medical use in the United States. The effects of flunitrazepam include muscle relaxation, impaired psychomotor performance, disinhibition, aggressive behavior, decreased blood pressure, dizziness, and drowsiness. Since 1999, the manufacturer of Rohypnol has added blue dye to the tablets so the drug is visible when dissolved in drinks, but the clear-dissolving tablets are still available on the black market. Known as the "date rape" drug, flunitrazepam has been used in sexual assaults due to its tasteless and odorless qualities and its ability to sedate and incapacitate unsuspecting victims. The drug can produce a type of amnesia in which individuals do not remember events they experienced while under its influence. The use of flunitrazepam in conjunction with alcohol or other depressants has resulted in several deaths.
Question 7
7. A health education teacher would like to foster high school students' knowledge of the personal consequences of driving while intoxicated. Which of the following strategies is likely to be most effective to use for this purpose?
- arranging for an individual who caused a car accident while driving intoxicated to talk to students about the aftereffects
- showing students graphic photographs of car crashes caused by intoxicated drivers
- inviting a local law enforcement officer to conduct a class presentation about laws against driving while intoxicated
- assigning students to read the personal stories of individuals who lost loved ones in accidents caused by intoxicated drivers
Answer to question 7
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0002) Inviting an individual who has been involved in a car accident due to drunk driving to speak to students is an effective way of bringing the issue home to students. This type of presentation could focus on the type of reckless behavior that caused the accident; the physical, financial, and emotional consequences of the accident; and what the driver would do differently if he or she could relive that day. An informal question and answer session following the presentation would allow students to ask their own questions about the accident and its consequences. Research has shown that teenagers who either have been in a car accident or have known someone who was hurt in a car accident have a lower probability of taking risks such as drinking and driving. Students who learn firsthand about the dangers and actual consequences of driving while intoxicated are far less likely to drink and drive than students who do not have this influence.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0002) Inviting an individual who has been involved in a car accident due to drunk driving to speak to students is an effective way of bringing the issue home to students. This type of presentation could focus on the type of reckless behavior that caused the accident; the physical, financial, and emotional consequences of the accident; and what the driver would do differently if he or she could relive that day. An informal question and answer session following the presentation would allow students to ask their own questions about the accident and its consequences. Research has shown that teenagers who either have been in a car accident or have known someone who was hurt in a car accident have a lower probability of taking risks such as drinking and driving. Students who learn firsthand about the dangers and actual consequences of driving while intoxicated are far less likely to drink and drive than students who do not have this influence.
Question 8
8. Which of the following lifestyle behaviors or habits approximately doubles a young person's risk for stroke?
- yo-yo dieting or weight cycling
- indiscriminate use of broad-spectrum antibiotics
- cigarette smoking
- illicit use of hallucinogenic or psychedelic drugs
Answer to question 8
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0002) According to the National Stroke Association, smoking cigarettes doubles the risk for stroke. According to federal health data, smokers are four times more likely to have a stroke than nonsmokers, and this risk is particularly elevated in younger people. Even nonsmokers who live with smokers are more likely to suffer a stroke. Cigarette smoking causes reduced circulation by narrowing the blood vessels (arteries). A stroke occurs when a blood vessel that supplies blood to the brain suddenly becomes blocked or bleeds. Smoking can cause high blood pressure and damage to blood vessel walls, and is known to contribute to the development of atherosclerosis. The more cigarettes smoked, the greater the development of carotid artery atherosclerosis and the greater the risk of having a stroke. A stroke can cause part of the brain to die and affect functions such as movement, vision, swallowing, and communication.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0002) According to the National Stroke Association, smoking cigarettes doubles the risk for stroke. According to federal health data, smokers are four times more likely to have a stroke than nonsmokers, and this risk is particularly elevated in younger people. Even nonsmokers who live with smokers are more likely to suffer a stroke. Cigarette smoking causes reduced circulation by narrowing the blood vessels (arteries). A stroke occurs when a blood vessel that supplies blood to the brain suddenly becomes blocked or bleeds. Smoking can cause high blood pressure and damage to blood vessel walls, and is known to contribute to the development of atherosclerosis. The more cigarettes smoked, the greater the development of carotid artery atherosclerosis and the greater the risk of having a stroke. A stroke can cause part of the brain to die and affect functions such as movement, vision, swallowing, and communication.
Question 9
9. According to evidence-based research, which type of educational approach is associated with the most successful outcomes in relation to preventing the use of tobacco, alcohol, and other drugs among middle school and high school students?
- developing students' communication and social skills and providing students with opportunities to practice the skills in role plays about resisting drugs and alcohol
- arranging for police officers to periodically visit classrooms and schools to warn students of the hazards of drug use, including the legal consequences
- using current statistics to illustrate for students the social and economic costs of drug and alcohol use and rate the effectiveness of mass media prevention campaigns
- inviting individuals who are in recovery from drug use to speak at school assemblies about the consequences of using drugs and the benefits of a drug-free lifestyle
Answer to question 9
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0002) Evidence-based health education studies have shown that the most successful substance abuse prevention programs are skill-based and involve a high level of structured peer interactions and interactions between teachers and students. Many successful programs teach students the communication, interpersonal, and social skills (sometimes collectively called "life skills") needed to refuse tobacco, alcohol, and other drugs. Often, they involve skills-driven, teacher-led activities with students role-playing scenarios that require use of refusal, resistance, and negotiation skills. By practicing these skills in role plays, students build experience and confidence for handling real-life situations.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0002) Evidence-based health education studies have shown that the most successful substance abuse prevention programs are skill-based and involve a high level of structured peer interactions and interactions between teachers and students. Many successful programs teach students the communication, interpersonal, and social skills (sometimes collectively called "life skills") needed to refuse tobacco, alcohol, and other drugs. Often, they involve skills-driven, teacher-led activities with students role-playing scenarios that require use of refusal, resistance, and negotiation skills. By practicing these skills in role plays, students build experience and confidence for handling real-life situations.
Question 10
10. Which of the following diseases is most commonly transmitted through exposure to infectious blood or bodily fluids?
- influenza
- syphilis
- hepatitis B
- mononucleosis
Answer to question 10
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0003) Hepatitis B is a liver disease caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV) that is transmitted through infected blood and bodily fluids. It can be transmitted to others through contact with blood, unprotected sex, and use of contaminated needles. Individuals who are newly infected or chronically infected may not recognize symptoms of the disease and unknowingly spread HBV to others. Left untreated, chronic HBV can lead to scarring of the liver, liver cancer, and liver failure.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0003) Hepatitis B is a liver disease caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV) that is transmitted through infected blood and bodily fluids. It can be transmitted to others through contact with blood, unprotected sex, and use of contaminated needles. Individuals who are newly infected or chronically infected may not recognize symptoms of the disease and unknowingly spread HBV to others. Left untreated, chronic HBV can lead to scarring of the liver, liver cancer, and liver failure.
Question 11
11. Which of the following statements best explains why it is especially important for adolescents to adopt and maintain healthy lifestyle behaviors and habits?
- Because the brains of adolescents are not fully "wired" until the late teenage years, unhealthy behaviors adopted during adolescence become ingrained and irreversible.
- Environmental risk factors have a greater impact on the body systems of adolescents than individuals in any other stage of development.
- Because of the rapid physical changes and growth spurts associated with adolescence, many health risks are difficult to detect during adolescence.
- Health-related risk factors present during adolescence are strong predictors of future adverse health outcomes and development of disease during adulthood.
Answer to question 11
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0003) Research data have shown that health-related risk factors that are present in childhood and adolescence can be correlated with the presence of the same risk factors identified in adults. For example, disease risk factors for obesity, insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes, hypertension, high blood cholesterol, and atherosclerosis that are present in the lives of adolescents tend to remain present into adulthood and develop into chronic diseases. Lifestyle behaviors such as inactivity, poor eating habits, and cigarette smoking that begin in childhood and adolescence also tend to continue into adulthood. One of the most harmful effects of adolescent drinking is that it leads to adult dependence on alcohol. The National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism reports that adolescents who start drinking before the age of 15 are five times more likely to develop an alcohol addiction than those who do not drink before the age of 21.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0003) Research data have shown that health-related risk factors that are present in childhood and adolescence can be correlated with the presence of the same risk factors identified in adults. For example, disease risk factors for obesity, insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes, hypertension, high blood cholesterol, and atherosclerosis that are present in the lives of adolescents tend to remain present into adulthood and develop into chronic diseases. Lifestyle behaviors such as inactivity, poor eating habits, and cigarette smoking that begin in childhood and adolescence also tend to continue into adulthood. One of the most harmful effects of adolescent drinking is that it leads to adult dependence on alcohol. The National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism reports that adolescents who start drinking before the age of 15 are five times more likely to develop an alcohol addiction than those who do not drink before the age of 21.
Question 12
12. Which of the following situations best exemplifies a secondary prevention practice in relation to skin cancer?
- An individual avoids exercising outdoors during midday hours on sunny days.
- An individual reapplies sunscreen with an SPF of 30 every hour or so while at the beach.
- A doctor performing a routine check of a patient's skin discovers a small mole with an asymmetrical shape.
- A team of scientists at a pharmaceutical company works on developing a new treatment for skin cancer.
Answer to question 12
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0003) Secondary prevention is used after a disease has occurred, but before the person notices that anything is wrong. A doctor checking for suspicious skin growths is an example of secondary prevention of skin cancer. The goal of secondary prevention is to find and treat disease early. In many cases, the disease can be cured. Primary prevention aims to prevent the disease from occurring. Encouraging people to protect themselves from the sun's ultraviolet rays is an example of primary prevention of skin cancer. Tertiary prevention targets the person who already has symptoms of the disease. The goals of tertiary prevention include slowing down a disease and preventing further problems. Developing better treatments for melanoma is an example of tertiary prevention.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0003) Secondary prevention is used after a disease has occurred, but before the person notices that anything is wrong. A doctor checking for suspicious skin growths is an example of secondary prevention of skin cancer. The goal of secondary prevention is to find and treat disease early. In many cases, the disease can be cured. Primary prevention aims to prevent the disease from occurring. Encouraging people to protect themselves from the sun's ultraviolet rays is an example of primary prevention of skin cancer. Tertiary prevention targets the person who already has symptoms of the disease. The goals of tertiary prevention include slowing down a disease and preventing further problems. Developing better treatments for melanoma is an example of tertiary prevention.
Question 13
13. The presence of high blood pressure and/or a family history of high blood pressure are considered to be strong indicators of an increased risk for:
- chronic gastritis.
- autoimmune disorder.
- heart disease.
- liver disease.
Answer to question 13
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0003) Hypertension, or high blood pressure, occurs when the force of blood passing through blood vessels is above normal. The increase in pressure forces the blood to hit the blood vessel walls. Persistent high blood pressure can harm blood vessels, cause the blood to become stickier and more likely to clot, and impede blood flow to the heart. High blood pressure can cause ischemic heart disease, a condition in which the heart muscle does not get enough blood. High blood pressure can also lead to heart failure by causing left ventricular hypertrophy (excessive thickening of the heart muscle). Hypertensive heart disease is the leading cause of death associated with high blood pressure and is actually a group of disorders that includes heart failure, ischemic heart disease, and left ventricular hypertrophy.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0003) Hypertension, or high blood pressure, occurs when the force of blood passing through blood vessels is above normal. The increase in pressure forces the blood to hit the blood vessel walls. Persistent high blood pressure can harm blood vessels, cause the blood to become stickier and more likely to clot, and impede blood flow to the heart. High blood pressure can cause ischemic heart disease, a condition in which the heart muscle does not get enough blood. High blood pressure can also lead to heart failure by causing left ventricular hypertrophy (excessive thickening of the heart muscle). Hypertensive heart disease is the leading cause of death associated with high blood pressure and is actually a group of disorders that includes heart failure, ischemic heart disease, and left ventricular hypertrophy.
Question 14
14. Hereditary, or genetic inheritance, plays a significant role in which of the following diseases?
- diphtheria
- muscular dystrophy
- encephalitis
- Parkinson's disease
Answer to question 14
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0003) Muscular dystrophy refers to several hereditary diseases of the muscular system characterized by weakness and wasting of skeletal muscles. It occurs when abnormal genes (mutations) interfere with the production of proteins needed to protect muscle fibers from damage. Many neuromuscular diseases, including the muscular dystrophies, are genetic diseases.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0003) Muscular dystrophy refers to several hereditary diseases of the muscular system characterized by weakness and wasting of skeletal muscles. It occurs when abnormal genes (mutations) interfere with the production of proteins needed to protect muscle fibers from damage. Many neuromuscular diseases, including the muscular dystrophies, are genetic diseases.
Question 15
15. Which of the following lifestyle behaviors poses the greatest risk of developing skin cancer, including melanoma?
- using indoor tanning facilities
- using sunless lotion and spray-tan products containing color additives in unventilated spaces
- getting insufficient sun exposure or food or supplemental sources of vitamin D
- using a broad-spectrum sunscreen from one year to the next or one manufactured more than a year ago
Answer to question 15
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0003) Use of indoor tanning beds among young people is an alarmingly widespread and dangerous behavior. Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) rays while indoor tanning causes skin cancers, including the deadliest form, melanoma. Research indicates that people who first use a tanning bed before age 35 increase their risk for melanoma by 75 percent. According to the American Academy of Dermatology Association, the risk of melanoma rises by nearly 60 percent in people who use indoor tanning facilities, and the risk increases with each use. In 2014, Minnesota joined many other states by enacting a law prohibiting anyone under the age of 18 from using a commercial indoor tanning facility in the state.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0003) Use of indoor tanning beds among young people is an alarmingly widespread and dangerous behavior. Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) rays while indoor tanning causes skin cancers, including the deadliest form, melanoma. Research indicates that people who first use a tanning bed before age 35 increase their risk for melanoma by 75 percent. According to the American Academy of Dermatology Association, the risk of melanoma rises by nearly 60 percent in people who use indoor tanning facilities, and the risk increases with each use. In 2014, Minnesota joined many other states by enacting a law prohibiting anyone under the age of 18 from using a commercial indoor tanning facility in the state.
Question 16
16. The development of secondary sexual characteristics and physical growth that occurs during puberty is influenced primarily by physiological changes in the: health risks among children in the United States?
- capacity of motor nerve fibers to transmit messages to muscles and organs.
- types of chemical substances produced and released in the endocrine and pituitary glands.
- efficiency with which the circulatory and digestive systems metabolize nutrients and chemicals.
- size of the parietal and frontal lobes, areas of the brain involved in processing sensory information.
Answer to question 16
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0004) The endocrine glands produce hormones, chemical substances that act as messengers as they travel through the bloodstream. When students reach a certain age, the brain signals the release of gonadotropin (GnRH), the hormone that starts puberty. GnRH travels to the pituitary gland, which releases two more chemicals, luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). These hormones act on different parts of the body. In females, FSH and LH stimulate the ovaries to begin producing estrogen, which, along with FSH and LH, causes the female body to mature. In males, FSH and LH signal the testes to begin production of testosterone, which drives most of the changes in the male body during puberty.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0004) The endocrine glands produce hormones, chemical substances that act as messengers as they travel through the bloodstream. When students reach a certain age, the brain signals the release of gonadotropin (GnRH), the hormone that starts puberty. GnRH travels to the pituitary gland, which releases two more chemicals, luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). These hormones act on different parts of the body. In females, FSH and LH stimulate the ovaries to begin producing estrogen, which, along with FSH and LH, causes the female body to mature. In males, FSH and LH signal the testes to begin production of testosterone, which drives most of the changes in the male body during puberty.
Question 17
17. Elena, a fifteen-year-old girl, has been dating Roger, a seventeen-year-old boy, for almost a year. Lately, Roger has been pressuring Elena to have sexual intercourse. Elena has explained to Roger that she does not feel ready. She has also told Roger that if he continues to exert pressure, she will stop seeing him. One day, Roger and Elena are alone in Elena's house. Roger tells Elena that this is the perfect time for the two to have sex. In this situation, it is most important for Elena to:
- leave and go to a neighbor's house.
- find a middle ground that both Elena and Roger can agree on.
- practice assertive refusal skills.
- report the situation immediately to a trusted adult.
Answer to question 17
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0004) Refusal skills are used to say "no" to unwanted sexual advances or to walk away from risky situations. In this situation, Elena could use assertive refusal skills to deliver a strong verbal and nonverbal "no" message, refuse to discuss the matter, walk away, suggest a new activity outside of the home in public, or ask Roger to leave her home. Elena has the right to act in her own best interest. Assertive refusal skills include saying "no" clearly and firmly; repeating the message as much as needed without giving excuses or reasons; reinforcing the "no" with body language, including eye contact and moving away; and turning the conversation around to express how it feels to be pressured about doing something not in one's own best interest.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0004) Refusal skills are used to say "no" to unwanted sexual advances or to walk away from risky situations. In this situation, Elena could use assertive refusal skills to deliver a strong verbal and nonverbal "no" message, refuse to discuss the matter, walk away, suggest a new activity outside of the home in public, or ask Roger to leave her home. Elena has the right to act in her own best interest. Assertive refusal skills include saying "no" clearly and firmly; repeating the message as much as needed without giving excuses or reasons; reinforcing the "no" with body language, including eye contact and moving away; and turning the conversation around to express how it feels to be pressured about doing something not in one's own best interest.
Question 18
18. A female high school student has made a personal commitment to abstain from sex until she feels that she is an adult in a loving relationship with another adult. Now the student is in a new dating relationship, and although her dating partner has not yet pressured her to engage in sexual activity, she feels that it will soon be an issue. Which of the following techniques is likely to be most effective for the student to use in helping her maintain her commitment to abstinence?
- familiarizing herself with statistics on rates of sexually transmitted infections and unwanted pregnancies
- discussing her concerns with a school guidance counselor
- reviewing how to use assertive communication skills and rehearsing them mentally or with a friend
- locating and reviewing research on abstinence education
Answer to question 18
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0004) In this scenario, the student has already begun the process of reducing risks to her sexual health by analyzing her new relationship and anticipating related challenges. Reviewing tips and techniques for using assertive communication to avoid or refuse sexually risky situations and rehearsing assertive communication techniques will help prepare the student for managing actual risky situations. This strategy will help the student develop confidence in her ability to implement assertive refusal skills to avoid unwanted sexual activity and to practice abstinence. Verbal and nonverbal assertive communication skills the student could practice include remaining firm in the right to say "no," making eye contact when stating feelings, repeating the word "no" until the person understands, being direct when responding to pressures, asking questions to reverse the pressure, changing the subject, and walking away from the situation.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0004) In this scenario, the student has already begun the process of reducing risks to her sexual health by analyzing her new relationship and anticipating related challenges. Reviewing tips and techniques for using assertive communication to avoid or refuse sexually risky situations and rehearsing assertive communication techniques will help prepare the student for managing actual risky situations. This strategy will help the student develop confidence in her ability to implement assertive refusal skills to avoid unwanted sexual activity and to practice abstinence. Verbal and nonverbal assertive communication skills the student could practice include remaining firm in the right to say "no," making eye contact when stating feelings, repeating the word "no" until the person understands, being direct when responding to pressures, asking questions to reverse the pressure, changing the subject, and walking away from the situation.
Question 19
19. Which of the following situations most strongly suggests that an adolescent dating relationship is unhealthy and may pose a risk for psychological harm?
- At times, both adolescents display frustration, disagreement, and a lack of patience with each other's actions and decisions.
- One adolescent enjoys socializing with family and peers and the other adolescent prefers couple activities or socializing with a few friends.
- Both adolescents seem oblivious to the characteristics in each other that friends and family members find immature and annoying.
- One adolescent tries to isolate the other adolescent from family and friends and attempts to control the other adolescent's activities.
Answer to question 19
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0004) Warning signs of an unhealthy dating relationship include controlling and isolating behaviors on the part of one of the partners. When a dating partner attempts to control one's activities, questions one about daily interactions with others, is consistently critical of one's family and friends, and doesn't like one spending time with family and friends, it's time to think long and hard about the relationship. Jealousy, control issues, and a lack of trust are often early warning signs of future relationship problems, as is one partner trying to micromanage the other. These types of issues can lead to mental and physical stress and emotional and social health problems, and may be precursors to physical abuse. A good relationship should involve both members respecting each other and allowing the other person to be him- or herself.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0004) Warning signs of an unhealthy dating relationship include controlling and isolating behaviors on the part of one of the partners. When a dating partner attempts to control one's activities, questions one about daily interactions with others, is consistently critical of one's family and friends, and doesn't like one spending time with family and friends, it's time to think long and hard about the relationship. Jealousy, control issues, and a lack of trust are often early warning signs of future relationship problems, as is one partner trying to micromanage the other. These types of issues can lead to mental and physical stress and emotional and social health problems, and may be precursors to physical abuse. A good relationship should involve both members respecting each other and allowing the other person to be him- or herself.
Question 20
20. Which of the following practices is considered to carry the greatest risk of HIV infection?
- having a sexual partner who has had multiple sexual partners
- receiving a blood transfusion from the U.S. blood supply
- using oral steroids and/or human growth hormone
- drinking from the same glass as an individual with HIV
Answer to question 20
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0004) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and other health organizations, individuals have an increased risk of becoming infected with HIV through sexual contact with partners who have or who have had multiple sexual partners. The risk of getting HIV from a blood transfusion is extremely low because all donated blood in the United States is screened for HIV. Although the risk of HIV transmission increases when individuals inject drugs such as steroids, oral routes of drug administration are not associated with an increased risk. One cannot be infected with HIV by drinking from the same glass as an individual with HIV because saliva carries a negligible viral load.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0004) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and other health organizations, individuals have an increased risk of becoming infected with HIV through sexual contact with partners who have or who have had multiple sexual partners. The risk of getting HIV from a blood transfusion is extremely low because all donated blood in the United States is screened for HIV. Although the risk of HIV transmission increases when individuals inject drugs such as steroids, oral routes of drug administration are not associated with an increased risk. One cannot be infected with HIV by drinking from the same glass as an individual with HIV because saliva carries a negligible viral load.
Question 21
21. Which of the following statements accurately describes a general characteristic of sexually transmitted infections (STIs S T I s )?
- Following appropriate treatment and recovery from an STI, an individual gains immunity from that particular STI S T I .
- With some STIs S T I s, an individual who is infected can transmit the infection even when no visible signs of disease are present.
- Because of the mechanisms of the incubation and prodromal stages of STI S T I infection, an individual can be infected with only one STI S T I at a time.
- Although the symptoms of a particular STI S T I may be different depending on the gender of the infected individual, symptoms do not vary within gender.
Answer to question 21
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0004) STIs are caused by viruses, bacteria, and parasites. Many people who have an STI do not develop overt symptoms and may not be aware they have an infection that can be passed through sexual contact. For example, most HPV (human papillomavirus) infections, common in teens and young adults, have no outward signs or symptoms. Some STIs present no overt signs of disease for an extended period. Some STIs present observable symptoms in one gender but not the other. Depending on the STI, a person may still be able to spread the infection when no signs of disease are present. It is also possible to be infected by more than one STI simultaneously.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0004) S T I s are caused by viruses, bacteria, and parasites. Many people who have an S T I do not develop overt symptoms and may not be aware they have an infection that can be passed through sexual contact. For example, most HPV (human papillomavirus) infections, common in teens and young adults, have no outward signs or symptoms. Some S T I s present no overt signs of disease for an extended period. Some S T I s present observable symptoms in one gender but not the other. Depending on the S T I, a person may still be able to spread the infection when no signs of disease are present. It is also possible to be infected by more than one S T I simultaneously.
Question 22
22. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections can present no symptoms or symptoms such as burning while urinating, discharge from the vagina or penis, and pain during sex; and can be treated with antibiotics, but if left untreated, can cause infertility and chronic pelvic pain in women, and urethral infection and swollen testicles in men?
- herpes simplex
- human papillomavirus
- Zika virus
- chlamydia
Answer to question 22
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0004) Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis that can be transmitted during vaginal, oral, or anal sexual contact. Chlamydia can cause fever, abdominal pain, and unusual discharge from the penis or vagina, but many individuals who are infected will experience no symptoms. Hence, health experts recommend that sexually active people get tested regularly. If not treated, chlamydia can cause serious problems, such as infertility, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), and tubal pregnancies in females; and urethral infection and testicle inflammation in males.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0004) Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis that can be transmitted during vaginal, oral, or anal sexual contact. Chlamydia can cause fever, abdominal pain, and unusual discharge from the penis or vagina, but many individuals who are infected will experience no symptoms. Hence, health experts recommend that sexually active people get tested regularly. If not treated, chlamydia can cause serious problems, such as infertility, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), and tubal pregnancies in females; and urethral infection and testicle inflammation in males.
Diagram For Questions 23 and 24
Use the diagram below of the human digestive system to answer the two questions that follow.
The view of the interior of the torso/abdominal cavity is straight-on, as if one could see inside an individual whom one was facing. In other words, internal organs that are located in the right hemisphere of the human body appear in the left hemisphere of the abdominal cavity in the diagram.
The numbers 1, 2, and 3 appear on the left side of the diagram and the numbers 4 and 5 appear on the right side of the diagram. A line leading from each of these numbers extends into a particular organ within the abdominal cavity. Beginning in the upper left and extending into the center of the diagram, is a large, roughly triangular or wedge-shaped organ labeled with the number 1. The shape of Organ 1 resembles a right-angle triangular prism with the right angle rounded off. Below and slightly to the right of Organ 1 is a smaller, crescent-or J-shaped organ labeled with the number 4. Organ 4 appears as a pouch-type organ located in the upper abdomen. A glandular-type organ labeled with the number 2 appears in the diagram just below the center of organ 1 and adjacent to the lower left edge of organ 4. Much of Organ 2 is obscured behind Organ 4. Organ 2 has an irregular shape and appears to be located in the back of the abdominal cavity; it is positioned in the approximate center of the diagram. Below organs 1, 2, and 4, is a large, thick, tube-shaped organ that appears in the shape of an upside down letter U. This organ is labeled with the number 5. In the diagram, Organ 5 begins in the lower left corner of the abdominal cavity and extends up and over to the right, down the right side of the abdominal cavity, and then to the lower center edge of the diagram. Organ 5 appears to frame or enclose a long, narrow, twisted, tube-shaped organ labeled with the number 3. Organ 3 appears coiled within the boundary created by organ 5 and takes up much of the lower abdomen. Although Organs 3 and 5 are both long and tubular, Organ 3 is coiled while Organ 5 is not, and the shape of Organ 3 is narrower than Organ 5.
Question 23
23. Which of the following structures in the diagram is the liver?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Answer to question 23
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0005) The structure labeled 1 in the diagram of the human digestive system is the liver. The liver is located in the upper right-hand section of the abdominal cavity, beneath the diaphragm and on top of the stomach, right kidney, and intestines. Among other functions related to digestion, metabolism, immunity, and the storage of nutrients, the liver regulates most chemical levels in the blood. It also excretes bile, which helps break down fats in preparation for further digestion and absorption. The liver plays an important role in detoxification by filtering the blood to remove toxins, synthesizing and ridding the body of bile full of cholesterol and other fat-soluble toxins, and in an enzymatic process, eliminating unwanted chemicals from the blood.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0005) The structure labeled 1 in the diagram of the human digestive system is the liver. The liver is located in the upper right-hand section of the abdominal cavity, beneath the diaphragm and on top of the stomach, right kidney, and intestines. Among other functions related to digestion, metabolism, immunity, and the storage of nutrients, the liver regulates most chemical levels in the blood. It also excretes bile, which helps break down fats in preparation for further digestion and absorption. The liver plays an important role in detoxification by filtering the blood to remove toxins, synthesizing and ridding the body of bile full of cholesterol and other fat-soluble toxins, and in an enzymatic process, eliminating unwanted chemicals from the blood.
Question 24
24. Which of the following phrases best describes a primary function of the digestive structure labeled 5?
- absorbing nutrients through the villi
- secreting enzymes to aid in digestion of starches
- absorbing water from digested food
- breaking down fats and proteins in ingested food
Answer to question 24
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0005) The structure labeled 5 in the diagram of the human digestive system is the large intestine, also known as the colon. Main functions of the large intestine include absorbing water and vitamins from digested food and converting digested food into waste material. During the process called peristalsis, the large intestine rids the body of food left over after the nutrients are removed from it, including bacteria and other waste.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0005) The structure labeled 5 in the diagram of the human digestive system is the large intestine, also known as the colon. Main functions of the large intestine include absorbing water and vitamins from digested food and converting digested food into waste material. During the process called peristalsis, the large intestine rids the body of food left over after the nutrients are removed from it, including bacteria and other waste.
Question 25
25. In the human body, which type of tissue connects bones to bones?
- tendons
- cartilage
- ligaments
- skeletal muscles
Answer to question 25
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0005) Bones are connected to other bones by long straps of tough fibrous tissue called ligaments. Ligaments support and strengthen joints, the junctures where bones meet. Ligaments restrict movement but provide enough flexibility to allow joints to move.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0005) Bones are connected to other bones by long straps of tough fibrous tissue called ligaments. Ligaments support and strengthen joints, the junctures where bones meet. Ligaments restrict movement but provide enough flexibility to allow joints to move.
Question 26
26. Which of the following statements accurately describes a key aspect of motor development in infancy and early childhood?
- Motor control progresses from the head to the lower parts of the body and from the spinal cord outward.
- Motor development differs dramatically from one child to the next in terms of both rates and sequences of motor development.
- Motor control develops first in the small muscles of the feet, wrists, and hands, then in the large muscles of the trunk, arms, and legs.
- Motor development progresses independently of other development areas; it is unaffected by intellectual, social, or emotional factors.
Answer to question 26
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0005) In infants and toddlers, motor control and coordination develops gradually, from top to bottom and from the center of the body outward. These two patterns of development are called cephalocaudal and proximodistal. Cephalocaudal development describes the progression of body control from the head to the lower parts of the body. For example, an infant achieves head, neck, upper trunk, and arm control before lower trunk and leg control. Proximodistal development describes progress from the central portions of the body (i.e., the spinal cord) to the distal or peripheral parts, namely, the arms and legs.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0005) In infants and toddlers, motor control and coordination develops gradually, from top to bottom and from the center of the body outward. These two patterns of development are called cephalocaudal and proximodistal. Cephalocaudal development describes the progression of body control from the head to the lower parts of the body. For example, an infant achieves head, neck, upper trunk, and arm control before lower trunk and leg control. Proximodistal development describes progress from the central portions of the body (i.e., the spinal cord) to the distal or peripheral parts, namely, the arms and legs.
Diagram For Questions 27 and 28
Use the diagram below of the human respiratory system to answer the two questions that follow.
Number 1 points to a coil-like structure in the lower neck and upper torso. Number 2 points to a Y-shaped fork at the end of the aforementioned coil-like structure. Number 3 points to one of the two "branches," in a manner of speaking, stemming from the aforementioned Y-shaped fork.
Question 27
27. In the diagram, the structure labeled 1 is the:
- pharynx.
- esophagus.
- larynx.
- trachea.
Answer to question 27
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0005) The structure labeled 1 in the diagram is the trachea. The trachea, or windpipe, is located below the larynx and runs down the center of the front part of the neck. It is flexible so that the head and neck may twist and bend during breathing. The lining of the trachea includes cells that secrete mucus as well as cells with very small hairlike fringes. The mucus traps tiny particles of debris, and the beating of the fringes moves the mucus up and out of the respiratory tract, keeping the lungs and air passages clear.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0005) The structure labeled 1 in the diagram is the trachea. The trachea, or windpipe, is located below the larynx and runs down the center of the front part of the neck. It is flexible so that the head and neck may twist and bend during breathing. The lining of the trachea includes cells that secrete mucus as well as cells with very small hairlike fringes. The mucus traps tiny particles of debris, and the beating of the fringes moves the mucus up and out of the respiratory tract, keeping the lungs and air passages clear.
Question 28
28. In the diagram, the structures labeled 2 and 3 are:
- alveoli.
- bronchi.
- capillaries.
- lymphocytes.
Answer to question 28
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0005) The structures labeled 2 and 3 in the diagram are the bronchi, or bronchial tubes. The bronchi are large air tubes leading from the trachea to the lungs that conduct air to and from the lungs. The trachea divides to form the right and left main bronchi which, in turn, divide to form the lobar, segmental, and subsegmental bronchi.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0005) The structures labeled 2 and 3 in the diagram are the bronchi, or bronchial tubes. The bronchi are large air tubes leading from the trachea to the lungs that conduct air to and from the lungs. The trachea divides to form the right and left main bronchi which, in turn, divide to form the lobar, segmental, and subsegmental bronchi.
Question 29
During a health education lesson, students learn about the influence of lifestyle health risks on the functioning of body systems and organs. The health education teacher lists some of the negative health effects of one particular lifestyle behavior.
Short-Term Health Effects:
- depressed activity in brain centers
- interference with the brain's communication pathways
- difficulty with motor coordination
- memory loss
Long-Term Health Effects:
- irregular heart beat
- high blood pressure
- stretching and drooping of heart muscle
- fatty liver (steatosis)
- liver disease
29. These negative health consequences are most closely associated with which of the following lifestyle behaviors?
- regularly binge drinking alcohol
- taking anabolic steroids without a prescription
- regularly using smokeless tobacco products
- misusing medication prescribed for attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Answer to question 29
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0005) Alcohol can slow the rate of communication between neurotransmitters in the brain. It suppresses a neurotransmitter called glutamate, which results in a slowdown in thoughts, speech, and movement. Alcohol use can cause memory lapses and decreased perception and coordination. Repeated binge drinking can weaken the heart muscle, causing a condition known as cardiomyopathy in which the weakened heart muscle stretches and droops and becomes unable to contract efficiently. Alcohol use also aggravates the conditions that often lead to strokes, including high blood pressure, arrhythmias or irregular heartbeats, and cardiomyopathy. Heavy drinking causes fat to build up in the liver in a condition called steatosis, a common alcohol-induced liver disorder. Alcoholic hepatitis is an inflammatory condition of the liver. Fibrosis is a condition in which scar tissue builds up in the liver; this excessive scar tissue can lead to cirrhosis, which causes a slow deterioration of the liver.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0005) Alcohol can slow the rate of communication between neurotransmitters in the brain. It suppresses a neurotransmitter called glutamate, which results in a slowdown in thoughts, speech, and movement. Alcohol use can cause memory lapses and decreased perception and coordination. Repeated binge drinking can weaken the heart muscle, causing a condition known as cardiomyopathy in which the weakened heart muscle stretches and droops and becomes unable to contract efficiently. Alcohol use also aggravates the conditions that often lead to strokes, including high blood pressure, arrhythmias or irregular heartbeats, and cardiomyopathy. Heavy drinking causes fat to build up in the liver in a condition called steatosis, a common alcohol-induced liver disorder. Alcoholic hepatitis is an inflammatory condition of the liver. Fibrosis is a condition in which scar tissue builds up in the liver; this excessive scar tissue can lead to cirrhosis, which causes a slow deterioration of the liver.
Question 30
30. In a health education class, the teacher and students discuss how to make healthy meal choices when there is a limited amount of money to spend on food. In this discussion, it would be appropriate for the teacher to emphasize that a common problem with foods that are least expensive and most readily available is that they:
- are often among the lowest in nutritional value.
- usually fail to meet the daily caloric needs of most individuals.
- are also most likely to carry a risk of food-borne disease.
- generally taste bland and do not lead to feelings of satiety.
Answer to question 30
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0006) When making individual and family nutrition choices, a main consideration should be evaluating the health-related costs and benefits of inexpensive "junk food" or prepackaged convenience foods versus whole or home-cooked foods. Although fast food and processed foods are easy to obtain and prepare and may be suited to busy lifestyles, they tend to be less nutritious than whole foods. They also tend to be much higher in sodium and calories, especially calories from fats and sugars.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0006) When making individual and family nutrition choices, a main consideration should be evaluating the health-related costs and benefits of inexpensive "junk food" or prepackaged convenience foods versus whole or home-cooked foods. Although fast food and processed foods are easy to obtain and prepare and may be suited to busy lifestyles, they tend to be less nutritious than whole foods. They also tend to be much higher in sodium and calories, especially calories from fats and sugars.
Question 31
31. A high school student is reviewing promotional literature for several different commercial weight loss plans. Which of the following plan recommendations most likely reflects faulty nutritional reasoning and a quick-fix approach that leads to only temporary weight loss?
- Plan 1 recommends that overall calories be reduced and daily exercise be incorporated into the weight loss plan.
- Plan 2 recommends eating a limited number of specific kinds of foods in prescribed combinations.
- Plan 3 recommends eating small meals made up of whole grains, lean protein, fruit, and vegetables.
- Plan 4 recommends reducing caloric intake of only saturated fats, sugars, and starches.
Answer to question 31
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0006) Weight loss plans such as Plan 2 that requires participants to eat particular foods or foods in specific combinations restrict a dieter's options and tend to be nutritionally unsound. If a weight loss plan mandates eliminating or restricting a food group, it's highly likely that several essential nutrients will be missing from such a diet. Typically, these types of plans result in a temporary weight loss in which there is a loss of body protein, accompanied by a loss of quantities of water and important minerals.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0006) Weight loss plans such as Plan 2 that requires participants to eat particular foods or foods in specific combinations restrict a dieter's options and tend to be nutritionally unsound. If a weight loss plan mandates eliminating or restricting a food group, it's highly likely that several essential nutrients will be missing from such a diet. Typically, these types of plans result in a temporary weight loss in which there is a loss of body protein, accompanied by a loss of quantities of water and important minerals.
Question 32
32. Obtaining sufficient amounts of vitamin D through diet and sun exposure is especially important to children's development because of vitamin D's role in:
- absorbing calcium and maximizing bone growth and strength.
- stimulating neural connections needed for brain growth.
- interacting with vitamin K to maintain electrolyte balance.
- preventing the formation of kidney stones.
Answer to question 326
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: A. (Objective 0006) Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in a few food sources such as fatty fish and fish oils. Major dietary sources of vitamin D include milk and other fortified foods. Vitamin D is also produced when ultraviolet rays of sunlight strike the skin and trigger its synthesis. Regardless of how it is obtained, vitamin D undergoes two conversions in the body for activation—the first occurs in the liver and the second occurs primarily in the kidneys. Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption in the small intestine and helps maintain adequate serum calcium and phosphate concentrations in the blood, enabling normal mineralization of bone. Vitamin D prevents rickets in children; without sufficient vitamin D, bones can become thin, brittle, or misshapen.
Correct Response: A. (Objective 0006) Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in a few food sources such as fatty fish and fish oils. Major dietary sources of vitamin D include milk and other fortified foods. Vitamin D is also produced when ultraviolet rays of sunlight strike the skin and trigger its synthesis. Regardless of how it is obtained, vitamin D undergoes two conversions in the body for activation—the first occurs in the liver and the second occurs primarily in the kidneys. Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption in the small intestine and helps maintain adequate serum calcium and phosphate concentrations in the blood, enabling normal mineralization of bone. Vitamin D prevents rickets in children; without sufficient vitamin D, bones can become thin, brittle, or misshapen.
Question 33
33. Which of the following health benefits is derived primarily from including soluble fiber from plant sources in the diet?
- increased repair of muscle and connective tissue
- improved regulation of body temperature
- reduced levels of cholesterol in the blood
- enhanced mineral deposition into growth plates
Answer to question 33
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0006) Dietary fiber is found exclusively in plant foods. Fiber is the part of the plant that is not broken down in the intestines by human digestive enzymes. Although it is not digested or absorbed in the body, fiber is essential for good health. Among other benefits, fiber may reduce the risk of heart disease by delaying or blocking the absorption of dietary cholesterol and helping to lower the level of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs), the "bad cholesterol," in the body. One of the ways soluble fiber lowers blood cholesterol is through its ability to reduce the amount of bile reabsorbed in the intestines. When fiber interferes with absorption of bile in the intestines, the bile is excreted. To offset this loss, the liver makes more bile salts. Since the body uses cholesterol to make bile salts, the liver increases its production of LDL receptors to obtain the cholesterol necessary to make more bile salts.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0006) Dietary fiber is found exclusively in plant foods. Fiber is the part of the plant that is not broken down in the intestines by human digestive enzymes. Although it is not digested or absorbed in the body, fiber is essential for good health. Among other benefits, fiber may reduce the risk of heart disease by delaying or blocking the absorption of dietary cholesterol and helping to lower the level of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs), the "bad cholesterol," in the body. One of the ways soluble fiber lowers blood cholesterol is through its ability to reduce the amount of bile reabsorbed in the intestines. When fiber interferes with absorption of bile in the intestines, the bile is excreted. To offset this loss, the liver makes more bile salts. Since the body uses cholesterol to make bile salts, the liver increases its production of LDL receptors to obtain the cholesterol necessary to make more bile salts.
Question 34
34. An adolescent who does not eat meat wants to prevent the development of iron-deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods would be most effective for the adolescent to include in dietary choices to avoid this disorder?
- wheat germ, oat bran, nuts, vegetable oils, yogurt
- wild blueberries, blackberries, green tea, cinnamon, garlic
- tomatoes, mango, carrots, guava, papaya, red cabbage
- black beans, shellfish, spinach, lentils, raisins
Answer to question 34
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0006) Low iron levels can lead to anemia (low red blood cell count) with symptoms that include low energy, headache, weight loss, irritability, dizziness, and shortness of breath. The best non-meat dietary sources of iron include sardines with bones, oysters, mussels, clams, black beans, chickpeas, lentils, spinach, and raisins.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0006) Low iron levels can lead to anemia (low red blood cell count) with symptoms that include low energy, headache, weight loss, irritability, dizziness, and shortness of breath. The best non-meat dietary sources of iron include sardines with bones, oysters, mussels, clams, black beans, chickpeas, lentils, spinach, and raisins.
Question 35
35. Foods from protein sources are especially important in the diets of growing children because dietary protein
- delivers vitamins, minerals, and trace elements to growth plates in bones, allowing bones to lengthen.
- activates the release of fatty acids into the bloodstream, which muscles then draw on for energy.
- deposits glucose into the bloodstream, which is then transported to the liver to store for future activity.
- breaks down into the amino acids needed for the synthesis of muscle tissue, hormones, and antibodies.
Answer to question 35
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0006) Proteins are essential for building and repairing muscles. They work at the cellular level and are required for the structure, function, and regulation of the body's tissues and organs. Proteins such as actin provide structure and support for cells. Hormonal proteins, like insulin and oxytocin, play vital roles like controlling blood sugar concentration. Antibody proteins bind to specific foreign particles, such as viruses and bacteria, to help protect the body.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0006) Proteins are essential for building and repairing muscles. They work at the cellular level and are required for the structure, function, and regulation of the body's tissues and organs. Proteins such as actin provide structure and support for cells. Hormonal proteins, like insulin and oxytocin, play vital roles like controlling blood sugar concentration. Antibody proteins bind to specific foreign particles, such as viruses and bacteria, to help protect the body.
Question 36
36. The human body's physiological adaptations to regular cardiorespiratory fitness training include an increase in:
- the number of muscle fibers in each muscle.
- resting heart rate.
- the volume of blood pumped per heartbeat.
- blood pressure.
Answer to question 36
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0007) One of the first physiological changes to occur in an individual who begins a cardiorespiratory fitness training program is an increase in blood volume. As the heart adapts to the body's need for oxygen during exercise, it becomes more efficient and can pump more blood in fewer heartbeats, or more blood per heart stroke. A fit individual will have a more effective heart stroke volume than an unfit individual.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0007) One of the first physiological changes to occur in an individual who begins a cardiorespiratory fitness training program is an increase in blood volume. As the heart adapts to the body's need for oxygen during exercise, it becomes more efficient and can pump more blood in fewer heartbeats, or more blood per heart stroke. A fit individual will have a more effective heart stroke volume than an unfit individual.
Question 37
37. Regular long-term participation in muscular strength and endurance activities is most likely to result in which of the following health-related benefits?
- increased ability to regulate hormone production
- enhanced digestive system functioning
- reduced need for sleep and rest
- improvements in body composition
Answer to question 37
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: D. (Objective 0007) Body composition is the ratio of fat to lean tissue in the body. Muscular strength is the greatest amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert in a single effort. Muscular endurance is the ability of a muscle or muscle group to perform repeated movements with a submaximal force for extended periods of times. Improving these two components of fitness will have a positive impact on body composition—the amount of body fat a person has in comparison to total body mass. Studies have shown that significant changes in body composition can result from muscular strength training, whether in the form of body support, resistance, or weight training activities. Strength training helps convert fatty tissue into lean body tissue, or muscle mass, which raises the body's basal metabolic rate, the rate at which the body uses energy for the operation of body systems. Increased muscle mass helps consume calories, even at rest. Typically, endurance exercise has been used for altering body composition because of its ability to increase energy expenditure and fat utilization. Fat mass and total body mass are generally reduced with endurance exercise.
Correct Response: D. (Objective 0007) Body composition is the ratio of fat to lean tissue in the body. Muscular strength is the greatest amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert in a single effort. Muscular endurance is the ability of a muscle or muscle group to perform repeated movements with a submaximal force for extended periods of times. Improving these two components of fitness will have a positive impact on body composition—the amount of body fat a person has in comparison to total body mass. Studies have shown that significant changes in body composition can result from muscular strength training, whether in the form of body support, resistance, or weight training activities. Strength training helps convert fatty tissue into lean body tissue, or muscle mass, which raises the body's basal metabolic rate, the rate at which the body uses energy for the operation of body systems. Increased muscle mass helps consume calories, even at rest. Typically, endurance exercise has been used for altering body composition because of its ability to increase energy expenditure and fat utilization. Fat mass and total body mass are generally reduced with endurance exercise.
Question 38
38. Use the illustration below to answer the question that follows.
In position one, the man is on all fours. In position two, he raises his right arm and stretches it out in front of him, and also raises and stretches out his left leg. His left arm and right leg remain planted on the ground to maintain balance.
In the exercise shown, the student starts in Position 1, a stable "table top" position, moves into Position 2 by raising and extending the right arm and the left leg until they are aligned with the torso, and then holds the position for five seconds. To complete the exercise, the student slowly returns to the starting position, raises and extends the opposite arm-leg pair, and holds the position for five seconds. This exercise is designed to strengthen the muscles of the:
- abdomen.
- thighs.
- lower back.
- forearms.
Answer to question 38
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0007) This exercise, commonly called the opposite arm and leg raise, promotes improved tone and strength in back muscles. A typical recommendation for beginners is to perform five to ten repetitions for each arm-leg pair following a proper warm-up. Regularly performing the exercise can help alleviate back pain and improve posture, carriage, and overall fitness. Along with strong abdominal and hip muscles, strong back muscles are essential for holding the spine in a neutral position and reducing spinal stress.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0007) This exercise, commonly called the opposite arm and leg raise, promotes improved tone and strength in back muscles. A typical recommendation for beginners is to perform five to ten repetitions for each arm-leg pair following a proper warm-up. Regularly performing the exercise can help alleviate back pain and improve posture, carriage, and overall fitness. Along with strong abdominal and hip muscles, strong back muscles are essential for holding the spine in a neutral position and reducing spinal stress.
Question 39
39. Students who make small but purposeful lifestyle changes such as walking each day, parking far away from store entrances, and using stairs instead of elevators and escalators are most likely trying to address which of the following personal wellness goals?
- improving muscle size
- improving balance and agility
- improving heart health
- improving joint flexibility
Answer to question 39
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: C. (Objective 0007) Individuals are able to improve their cardiorespiratory fitness, or heart health, with a series of small changes. Fitness strategies such as walking each day and routinely using stairs helps individuals maintain a healthy weight, which can reduce the risk of heart disease, high blood pressure, and diabetes. Exercising improves the blood supply to the heart, which improves the pumping efficiency of the heart and promotes growth of new blood vessels in the arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle.
Correct Response: C. (Objective 0007) Individuals are able to improve their cardiorespiratory fitness, or heart health, with a series of small changes. Fitness strategies such as walking each day and routinely using stairs helps individuals maintain a healthy weight, which can reduce the risk of heart disease, high blood pressure, and diabetes. Exercising improves the blood supply to the heart, which improves the pumping efficiency of the heart and promotes growth of new blood vessels in the arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle.
Question 40
40. Which of the following statements accurately describes how regular physical exercise helps students with type 2 diabetes manage their disease?
- Exercise decreases the rate of protein synthesis in muscles, which reduces the need for glycogen.
- Exercise causes muscle cells to take up glucose efficiently with little or no insulin, thereby reducing excess sugars in the blood.
- Exercise decreases the need for the body's digestive system to break down and eliminate sugars.
- Exercise causes the body's resistance to insulin to increase, thereby allowing muscle and organ cells to block glucose uptake.
Answer to question 40
- Answer Enter to expand or collapse answer. Answer expanded
- Correct Response: B. (Objective 0007) Exercise causes the body's sensitivity to insulin to increase during physical activity, which allows the body to use glucose more efficiently. When insulin sensitivity is increased, muscle cells are better able to use any available insulin to take up glucose during and after physical activity. As muscles contract during activity, cells are able to use glucose for energy whether insulin is available or not.
Correct Response: B. (Objective 0007) Exercise causes the body's sensitivity to insulin to increase during physical activity, which allows the body to use glucose more efficiently. When insulin sensitivity is increased, muscle cells are better able to use any available insulin to take up glucose during and after physical activity. As muscles contract during activity, cells are able to use glucose for energy whether insulin is available or not.